R
Robert Myers
YKhan said:Yup:
"According to Roland Vogl, Executive Director for the Stanford Program
in Law at Stanford University, AMD carries the burden of proof. 'First,
AMD has to prove that Intel actually has monopoly power, which would be
40 percent in the US - that should be a non-issue here.'"
http://www.tomshardware.com/business/20050712/index-02.html
Remind me not to hire you or Tom as a lawyer. If Tom is quoting Roland
Vogel correctly, I'm not sure I'd vote to give him tenure, but I
suspect he is not being quoted correctly.
The assertion that 40% market share defines a monopoly in the US smells
like a can of tuna fish that's been open too long.
Here's something that sounds a little more plausible:
http://www.cnn.com/interactive/computing/0004/microsoft.finding/2.html
<quote>
Where courts have found that the agreements in question failed to
foreclose absolutely outlets that together accounted for a substantial
percentage of the total distribution of the relevant products, they
have consistently declined to assign liability. See, e.g., id. ¶ 1821;
U.S. Healthcare, 986 F.2d at 596-97; Roland Mach. Co., 749 F.2d at 394
(failure of plaintiff to meet threshold burden of proving that
exclusive dealing arrangement is likely to keep at least one
significant competitor from doing business in relevant market dictates
no liability under § 1). This Court has previously observed that the
case law suggests that, unless the evidence demonstrates that
Microsoft's agreements excluded Netscape altogether from access to
roughly forty percent of the browser market, the Court should decline
to find such agreements in violation of § 1. See United States v.
Microsoft Corp., Nos. CIV. A. 98-1232, 98-1233, 1998 WL 614485, at *19
(D.D.C. Sept. 14, 1998) (citing cases that tended to converge upon
forty percent foreclosure rate for finding of § 1 liability).
</quote>
That might be above the level of reading comprehension of some who'd
like to follow along (but not yours, I'm sure), so let me translate:
the forty percent refers to a portion of the market from which the
accused has successfully *completely* (100%--"foreclose absolutely")
excluded the aggrieved by illegal tactics. If, for example, Dell were
40% of the market and it could be shown that Intel had used illegal
tactics to keep AMD out of Dell, Section 1 of the Sherman Anti-Trust
Act could be applied.
Here it is again:
<quote>
This Court has previously observed that the >>>case law<<< suggests
that, unless the evidence demonstrates that Microsoft's agreements
</quote>
That may be something that AMD can show, but it's a bit more than forty
percent overall market share for Intel as probative, and it certainly
does not define forty percent market share as being a monopoly. It is,
in any case, a matter of case law (tends to converge on forty percent),
under which courts have determined whether Section 1 of the Sherman
Anti-Trust Act can even be applied--not a definition of a monopoly.
RM