Jack said:
You mean, I take it, a user *of that ISP*. A customer, in other
words.
Yes.
For example, if my ISP is called "Acme Internet", and if Acme operates
an SMTP server with the name "SMTP.ACME.COM", which if I perform a
reverse DNS on it results in an IP address that belongs to, and is
part of, ACME's assigned network.
The ISP's customers might well find this suggested behaviour
annoying, to say the least.
Most home users are not sophisticated enough to have e-mail accounts
on other networks. They simply sign up with a locally-available (but
usually large) ISP, recieve a modem and a CD in the mail, let the
software install itself, and are given a web-based e-mail client to
use to access their e-mail (which isin't even using pop). For people
that signed up a few years ago (before web-mail became popular) they
had their system configured to use their ISP's SMTP server (both
incoming and outgoing).
In our example, if Acme Internet has a contract for Yahoo or Hotmail
(or other third party) to provide e-mail service for their customers,
then Acme can simply allow port-25 between their customers and the
third party e-mail provider (and ONLY that provider).
When someone more sophisticated (or who had an e-mail account on
another network prior to subscribing to Acme's network) then there
seem to be plenty of examples where outbound port-25 blocking is
lifted on a subscriber-by-subscriber basis (ie if I want to keep using
my old out-bound SMTP setting then I call Acme and they somehow are
able to know which port-25 packets are mine and let them go out of
their network and onto the internet).
Just remember that it's really pointless to insist that you keep using
an old (or alternate) out-going SMTP server because it really doesn't
matter how your e-mail gets it's destination. For example, again if
my ISP is Acme Internet, but I have an e-mail account with Fubar.net,
then I can set my outbound SMTP server to SMTP.ACME.COM, but my
incoming server is set to SMTP.FUBAR.NET (and in my e-mail settings my
"reply-to" e-mail address can be anything I want, but specifically I
would have it as (e-mail address removed). When I send e-mail to someone,
it looks like it's coming from Fubar.net, and when they reply, that's
where it goes, and when I retrieve e-mail, it'll be coming from Fubar.
Perhaps you meant to add that in case b), the message
is *not* sent via the ISP's smarthost, but direct to
the recipient's MX server.
Which is what my explanation (above) indicates (if by smarthost you
mean SMTP server).
ISP's were initially reluctant to block port-25 packets from leaving
their networks (from other than their own SMTP servers). With
millions of cusomters, they were dreading the support nightmare of
dealing with people who indeed were using outbound SMTP settings that
were outside the ISP's network, some of those people probably had
legacy settings or were set up by friends/family and would be unable
to follow instructions to change their outbound settings to the ISP's
own server. E-mail trouble is more than enough reason for some people
to switch ISP's.
That is how most *email* is sent - unless I'm right in
assuming that cases b) and c) both involve sending
direct-to-MX.
For people that still use POP mail, I'd say that most legit e-mail is
sent from the customer to the customer's ISP's SMTP server and then
from their to it's external destination.
It's the direct-to-mx spam that is blocked by preventing port-25
packets to go directly from a subscriber's computer to somewhere on
the internet. But such blocking (it seems) also prevents legit e-mail
from going from a subscriber's computer to a third-party SMTP server.
I've not heard of such a scheme; I think it would be illegal in
western countries for an ISP to intercept outbound email traffic
without telling you about this policy.
Remember that if it's legit e-mail then most likely when you send it
it's going TO your ISP's outbound SMTP server anyways (where it is at
least checked for viruses I bet).
And your incoming e-mail is also scanned by your ISP (to determine if
it's spam, or if it contains mal-ware) so again I don't think there's
anything "illegal" about a scheme where e-mail not intended to pass
through your ISP's SMTP servers are nonetheless forced to do so - and
scanned for malware and spam content at the same time.
Server-side anti-spam software can be linked in to the SMTP
server to catch outgoing spam, as well as incoming spam.
But again it's the direct-to-mx spam (being sent by an infected
computer) that we're talking about. Such e-mail ->WILL NOT<- pass
through the (sending) ISP's SMTP server (because the mal-ware on the
sending computer includes a mini-SMTP server engine). The only way an
ISP can stop that shit from leaving their network is to block port-25
packets from ALL computers within their network EXCEPT their own SMTP
servers.
The filtration of outbound spam is effectively done *by* the
ISPs SMTP server.
Not if it's direct-to-mx (which is how practically all spam is being
sent, and is how most spam HAS EVER been sent over the past, say, 5
years).
Unless you operate your own domain and your own SMTP server as part of
a corporate network, you will never know the volume of direct-to-mx
spam that comes from infected computers on residential ISP networks.
We wouldn't HAVE a spam problem on the internet if it wasn't for
infected PC's on residential cable and DSL networks that act like
their own little SMTP servers.