Win2003 - Win XP Client - different network

  • Thread starter Thread starter David
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David

Hi,


I have a single singlehomed Windows 2003 Standard SP1 server (192.168.168.0
/ 24) at work. Its gateway is .168

It is currently configured like this: When a home user uses the standard XP
client to create a PPTP connection, it receives an IP address in the range
of the company network. Its subnet is 255.255.255.255, no default gateway. I
need to have "use default gateway on remote network" disabled, else the XP
client can't browse the web & vpn at the same time. I know this isn't the
reccomended configuration because it allows split tunneling but at the
moment that's the way the boss wants it.

I want to have the XP client receive an IP in another range (172.16.0.0 /
24). In a way that it seems to be a router-to-router connection.
I already added the IP 172.16.0.10 / 24 to the server's LAN interface. I
didn't add another gateway. In RRAS manager I set the client to receive an
IP from a static pool (172.16.0.20 => 30). I thought this would do but since
the RRAS client doesn't receive a default gateway with its mask of /32, I
can't access the 192.168.168.0 / 24 network from home. I tried to add a
route with the command: "route add 192.168.168.0 MASK 255.255.255.0
172.16.0.10" but I got the error:
"The route addition failed: Either the interface index is wrong or the
gateway does not lie on the same network as the interface. Check the IP
Address Table for the machine."

I'm quite sure there's some way to do it, but I can't figure it out.

Someone here who can help me?


Thanks,

David
 
No, that won't work. It worked in earlier versions, but not since W2k.
The address must be for the local interface, not the one on the server. (See
kb 254231 particularly the paragraph near the end under the routing table
diagram).

This is tricky because you don't know what the IP address is until the
connection is made. You would need a script which could get that IP after
connection and plug it into the route command. Server can do it by using
demand-dial interfaces, but not XP.

Was there a particular reason to use a 172.16 address?
 
We have a VoIP application that's integrated with our IP PBX. It works fine
indeed when I use my home 2K3 server to establish a demand-dial connection
to our company server and back again. But when I connect my XP machine as a
normal VPN client it only works like this: When I talk on the VoIP phone,
the other party hears me, but I don't hear anything they say. The IP PBX
treats the client's VPN IP address as a local client but it really isn't
local so it doesn't find it's (virtual) MAC address etc.

Can you think of something else I could try ?


thx again

David


"Bill Grant" wrote
 
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