D
Donald McTrevor
I recently purchased a 300Mhz AMD K6/2 as 300 if the
max the motherboard could manage, however I did notice
a 400Mhz chip which I could have probably got for the same
price.
I am wondering whether I should have got the 400Mhz
model an underclocked it at 300Mhz?
I presume there would have been a lot less heat.
Also there may be even faster chips which I could have
underclocked, producing even less heat, maybe even
enough to run without a fan, which would be great
noise wise.
I note the K6/2 goes up to 550Mhz.
Also I just read else where
http://www.computing.net/cpus/wwwboard/forum/11920.html
"an AMD k6-2 will interpret a 2x multiplier as a 6x multipilier"
So I could have got a 450Mhz K6/2?
Actually I think someone here, possibly Kony had already
told me this (or something similar)
max the motherboard could manage, however I did notice
a 400Mhz chip which I could have probably got for the same
price.
I am wondering whether I should have got the 400Mhz
model an underclocked it at 300Mhz?
I presume there would have been a lot less heat.
Also there may be even faster chips which I could have
underclocked, producing even less heat, maybe even
enough to run without a fan, which would be great
noise wise.
I note the K6/2 goes up to 550Mhz.
Also I just read else where
http://www.computing.net/cpus/wwwboard/forum/11920.html
"an AMD k6-2 will interpret a 2x multiplier as a 6x multipilier"
So I could have got a 450Mhz K6/2?
Actually I think someone here, possibly Kony had already
told me this (or something similar)