Routing table question

  • Thread starter Thread starter Phil Teale
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Phil Teale

Hi There

Does a routeing table propagate automatically to all client machines
on a subnet? The reason I ask is that we have a frame circuit between
two offices (one in Aus, one in NZ) to carry our Citrix traffic.
There is a route in the Citrix server table specifying that all
traffic destined for the .1 subnet in Aus, goes via the internal
interface of the frame circuit, as opposed to the default gateway. I
thought that I would need to program each client in Aus with the
reverse situation, i.e. that any traffic bound for the Citrix server
should be routed via the internal interface of the frame on the Aussie
side. To my surprise I have found that after entering it in the
routeing table of one machine, it is present in that of another - is
this meant to happen?

On a separate front, we have another Frame circuit between the main
office in NZ and our NZ warehouse. The warehouse is on a .2 subnet,
NZ main office is on a .0 subnet, and Aus is on a .1 subnet. The main
office can ping devices on both subnets, but the Australian office can
only ping the main NZ office. I attempted to put a route in an .1
subnet server specifying that any traffic bound for the .2 subnet
should be routed through a gateway on the .0 subnet, however this
failed saying that the gateway had to be on the same subnet as the
interface. Can I get round this by adding a second NIC in this
server, and giving this an IP address on the .0 subnet?

Sorry for the long winded post. Any help would be greatly
appreciated.

Cheers

Phil
 
Routing table entries are static and/or dynamic (created with routing
protocols).
Dynamic entries propagate between routers through network - question is if
you have routing protocol no your PC.

Would be easier to answer subnet problem if you would specify subnet
details.
bye
 
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