VARP does not give you the population variance unless you have observed
the entire population. Since you are assuming normality, it gives you a
biased estimate of the population variance.
VARP*n/(n-1)
is the unbiased estimate (that would be computed directly by VAR)
Var1/Var2 (unbiased estimates) should follow the F distribution if the
true (unobserved) population variances are equal. Otherwise the ratio
will be too large (if the unobserved sigma1^2 > sigma2^2) or too small
(if the unobserved sigma2^2 > sigma1^2). This is assessed by evaluating
whether FDIST(Var1/Var2,n1-1,n2-1) is too close (often taken to mean
within 0.025) to zero or one. If you knew a priori (before looking at
the data) that if there were a difference then population 1 would be
more variable, then you would just be concerned with whether FDIST is
too close (say within 0.05) to zero.
If you conclude that the population variances are different, then the
populations are different.
If you conclude that the population variances are the same, then you
would pool sample variances to get
Var = ((n1-1)*Var1 + (n2-1)*Var2)/(n1+n2-2)
(again Var1 and Var2 refer to unbiased estimates; (n1-1)*Var1 =
n1*VarP1). The sample means could then be compared by calculating
t = (Xbar1 - Xbar2)/SQRT((1/n1+1/n2)*Var)
where Xbar refers to the sample mean. You would conclude that
population means were different if ABS(t) is too large. This is
assessed by whether TDIST(ABS(t),n1+n2-2,2) is too close to zero (say
within 0.05). If you knew a priori that if population means were
different then mu1 would exceed mu2, you would use TDIST(t,n1+n2-2,1)
instead.
Not concluding that the population variances are different does not
necessarily imply that they are the same (your sample sizes may be too
small to prove a difference that exists. If you are unwilling to
conclude that the population variances are the same, then comparing the
means becomes much more complicated.
A good statistics book or class will help you understand and properly
address these issues.
Jerry