P
Peter
I am currently being sued by a man who claims that e-mails
I sent him constitute a legally binding contract (this is
under UK law).
The e-mails that the claimant is presenting have, I
believe been edited after the event and/or been created
totally ficticiously.
Unfortunately I no longer have the laptop on which the e-
mail communication between us was stored so I do not have
records and am having to rely on the rules of disclosure
of evidence.
To date all the solicitors involved seem quite happy to
accept that because the claimant has e-mails on his PC and
print them out then these e-mails are genuine.
I believe though that Outlook includes security features
that would enable me to demonstrate that the e-mails the
claimant presents have been edited after he received them
and - in the case of the created e-mails - the date that
they were created and that they were not really sent to me
at all.
Questions:
1) Is my understanding outlined in the paragraph above
fundamentally correct?
2) How do I demonstrate this (in particular I need to know
what files I need from the claimant to demonstrate the
validity or otherwise of the e-mails)
3) Is there any UK case law that touches on this subject?
Many thanks for your help!
Peter
I sent him constitute a legally binding contract (this is
under UK law).
The e-mails that the claimant is presenting have, I
believe been edited after the event and/or been created
totally ficticiously.
Unfortunately I no longer have the laptop on which the e-
mail communication between us was stored so I do not have
records and am having to rely on the rules of disclosure
of evidence.
To date all the solicitors involved seem quite happy to
accept that because the claimant has e-mails on his PC and
print them out then these e-mails are genuine.
I believe though that Outlook includes security features
that would enable me to demonstrate that the e-mails the
claimant presents have been edited after he received them
and - in the case of the created e-mails - the date that
they were created and that they were not really sent to me
at all.
Questions:
1) Is my understanding outlined in the paragraph above
fundamentally correct?
2) How do I demonstrate this (in particular I need to know
what files I need from the claimant to demonstrate the
validity or otherwise of the e-mails)
3) Is there any UK case law that touches on this subject?
Many thanks for your help!
Peter