Discounted Vista upgrade

  • Thread starter Thread starter Chuck
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Chuck

I have the opportunity to buy an upgrade to Vista cheaply (with new
install of XP)

I have been told that installing that upgrade will result in XP being
"deactivated".

Now I understand that Vista will replace XP, but is there anything
that would then prevent me from reinstalling XP on another partition
or even on another machine?

I can understand that might not be regarded as "legal" or "morally
correct' but would it work?
 
Perhaps the XP product key will be blocked on the activatation server once
you activate the upgrade product. You would get an "invalid product key"
message in such a case when you try to activate the XP on another machine.
 
He already knew that that it maybe illegal or immoral in the eyes of some. Some why did you even bother to make a reply? Are you trying to show how morally righteous you are by Microsoft standards? Are you trying to be another John the Baptist telling King Herod that he was wrong to have his brother's wife?

It is neither legal nor morally correct. I have no interest in trying it to
see if it's physically possible so I stick with the earlier answer. ;-)

--
Richard G. Harper [MVP Shell/User] (e-mail address removed)
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* PLEASE post all messages and replies in the newsgroups
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* HELP us help YOU ... http://www.dts-l.org/goodpost.htm
 
Take it to a judge..
He already knew that that it maybe illegal or immoral in the eyes of some. Some why did you even bother to make a reply? Are you trying to show how morally righteous you are by Microsoft standards? Are you trying to be another John the Baptist telling King Herod that he was wrong to have his brother's wife?

It is neither legal nor morally correct. I have no interest in trying it to
see if it's physically possible so I stick with the earlier answer. ;-)

--
Richard G. Harper [MVP Shell/User] (e-mail address removed)
* NEW! Catch my blog ... http://msmvps.com/blogs/rgharper/
* PLEASE post all messages and replies in the newsgroups
* The Website - http://rgharper.mvps.org/
* HELP us help YOU ... http://www.dts-l.org/goodpost.htm
 
There is a strong likelyhood that your copy of XP is an OEM copy and that it
won't install on a different machine (assuming that you new install target
is a different make or model computer.)

-A
 
Which newsgroup did this happen in? ;-)

--
Richard G. Harper [MVP Shell/User] (e-mail address removed)
* NEW! Catch my blog ... http://msmvps.com/blogs/rgharper/
* PLEASE post all messages and replies in the newsgroups
* The Website - http://rgharper.mvps.org/
* HELP us help YOU ... http://www.dts-l.org/goodpost.htm


He already knew that that it maybe illegal or immoral in the eyes of some.
Some why did you even bother to make a reply? Are you trying to show how
morally righteous you are by Microsoft standards? Are you trying to be
another John the Baptist telling King Herod that he was wrong to have his
brother's wife?
 
I really didn't want to debate the morality of this - I am not legally
qualified to debate the legality - but was more interested in the
technical aspects, however lets look at the morality.

I have a legally purchased copy of XP. I bought that as an upgrade to
Win 98 at a discounted price. At no time was there ever an
expectation that buying the upgrade version of XP would require me to
destroy my Win 98 installation. I was able (and allowed) to install
XP to a new partition, thus retaining 98 and also having XP. In fact
I didn't even have to install Xp on the same machine where 98 was
installed.

Now Microsoft may have changed the rules, but the same situation
arises. I have paid for a version of XP and am now buying - albeit at
a discounted price - Vista. Why should that mean I have to destroy XP
- which I have paid for.

Could the discounted price not be regarded as a 'loyalty' discount for
being a previous customer?

Regardless, my original query remains, is it possible to install the
upgrade verion of Vista to a new partition on the same machine where
XP resides?



i have a leOn Wed, 27 Dec 2006 05:32:18 -0500, "Richard G. Harper"
It is neither legal nor morally correct. I have no interest in trying it to
see if it's physically possible so I stick with the earlier answer. ;-)

--
Richard G. Harper [MVP Shell/User] (e-mail address removed)
* NEW! Catch my blog ... http://msmvps.com/blogs/rgharper/
* PLEASE post all messages and replies in the newsgroups
* The Website - http://rgharper.mvps.org/
* HELP us help YOU ... http://www.dts-l.org/goodpost.htm


I have the opportunity to buy an upgrade to Vista cheaply (with new
install of XP)

I have been told that installing that upgrade will result in XP being
"deactivated".

Now I understand that Vista will replace XP, but is there anything
that would then prevent me from reinstalling XP on another partition
or even on another machine?

I can understand that might not be regarded as "legal" or "morally
correct' but would it work?
 
According to the notes accompanying the Upgrade Matrix, some scenarios might
require installing to a separate partition using an upgrade edition product
key (regressing from XP Pro to Vista Home Premium, for example). However,
there are a lot of issues in the Upgrade Matrix that are as yet unclarified.
I don't think an answer to the question of whether you can install Vista to
a separate volume from the legacy OS is as yet available. It may not be
available until the end of January.

I don't know who "allowed" you to reuse the Windows 98 or if you mean it
just worked. Doing that is out of compliance but MS had no way to detect
it. Windows 98 licensing was under an honor system. That practice is
called "casual copying" and is exactly why we have activation today.

The word "loyalty" is a strange one to use by one who practiced casual
copying in the past.

I really didn't want to debate the morality of this - I am not legally
qualified to debate the legality - but was more interested in the
technical aspects, however lets look at the morality.

I have a legally purchased copy of XP. I bought that as an upgrade to
Win 98 at a discounted price. At no time was there ever an
expectation that buying the upgrade version of XP would require me to
destroy my Win 98 installation. I was able (and allowed) to install
XP to a new partition, thus retaining 98 and also having XP. In fact
I didn't even have to install Xp on the same machine where 98 was
installed.

Now Microsoft may have changed the rules, but the same situation
arises. I have paid for a version of XP and am now buying - albeit at
a discounted price - Vista. Why should that mean I have to destroy XP
- which I have paid for.

Could the discounted price not be regarded as a 'loyalty' discount for
being a previous customer?

Regardless, my original query remains, is it possible to install the
upgrade verion of Vista to a new partition on the same machine where
XP resides?



i have a leOn Wed, 27 Dec 2006 05:32:18 -0500, "Richard G. Harper"
It is neither legal nor morally correct. I have no interest in trying it
to
see if it's physically possible so I stick with the earlier answer. ;-)

--
Richard G. Harper [MVP Shell/User] (e-mail address removed)
* NEW! Catch my blog ... http://msmvps.com/blogs/rgharper/
* PLEASE post all messages and replies in the newsgroups
* The Website - http://rgharper.mvps.org/
* HELP us help YOU ... http://www.dts-l.org/goodpost.htm


I have the opportunity to buy an upgrade to Vista cheaply (with new
install of XP)

I have been told that installing that upgrade will result in XP being
"deactivated".

Now I understand that Vista will replace XP, but is there anything
that would then prevent me from reinstalling XP on another partition
or even on another machine?

I can understand that might not be regarded as "legal" or "morally
correct' but would it work?
 
If you want to upgrade to Vista and then use your previous copy of XP that you used to upgrade to Vista and install it on another computer, and it works and activates, then I do not have a problem with it. I am not going to tell you what is 'legal' or morally righteous in the eyes of Microsoft when it comes to what you do on your own personal computers. I would have more of an issue if this was being done in the corporate world.

<Chuck> wrote in message I really didn't want to debate the morality of this - I am not legally
qualified to debate the legality - but was more interested in the
technical aspects, however lets look at the morality.

I have a legally purchased copy of XP. I bought that as an upgrade to
Win 98 at a discounted price. At no time was there ever an
expectation that buying the upgrade version of XP would require me to
destroy my Win 98 installation. I was able (and allowed) to install
XP to a new partition, thus retaining 98 and also having XP. In fact
I didn't even have to install Xp on the same machine where 98 was
installed.

Now Microsoft may have changed the rules, but the same situation
arises. I have paid for a version of XP and am now buying - albeit at
a discounted price - Vista. Why should that mean I have to destroy XP
- which I have paid for.

Could the discounted price not be regarded as a 'loyalty' discount for
being a previous customer?

Regardless, my original query remains, is it possible to install the
upgrade verion of Vista to a new partition on the same machine where
XP resides?



i have a leOn Wed, 27 Dec 2006 05:32:18 -0500, "Richard G. Harper"
It is neither legal nor morally correct. I have no interest in trying it to
see if it's physically possible so I stick with the earlier answer. ;-)

--
Richard G. Harper [MVP Shell/User] (e-mail address removed)
* NEW! Catch my blog ... http://msmvps.com/blogs/rgharper/
* PLEASE post all messages and replies in the newsgroups
* The Website - http://rgharper.mvps.org/
* HELP us help YOU ... http://www.dts-l.org/goodpost.htm


I have the opportunity to buy an upgrade to Vista cheaply (with new
install of XP)

I have been told that installing that upgrade will result in XP being
"deactivated".

Now I understand that Vista will replace XP, but is there anything
that would then prevent me from reinstalling XP on another partition
or even on another machine?

I can understand that might not be regarded as "legal" or "morally
correct' but would it work?
 
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