H
Harvey Van Sickle
This may be more of a legal question than a language one.
I'm doing some research which touches on Richard Jones, the first Earl
of Ranelagh, who as Paymaster-General in the late 1680s managed to
obtain an estate in Chelsea by questionable means.
In 1702, Ranelagh was expelled from Parliament and forced to resign on
the grounds of misapplying public money, but no hard evidence of
misappropriation or embezzlement was put forward in the reports of the
relevant Commissioners.
The Concise DNB states that Ranelagh "was convicted of defalcation, but
escaped prosecution".
"Convicted" struck me as an odd term to use in this context: does
"being found guilty by one's colleagues", or "forced to resign because
of alleged but unprosecuted illegal actions" constitute being
"convicted"?
I'm doing some research which touches on Richard Jones, the first Earl
of Ranelagh, who as Paymaster-General in the late 1680s managed to
obtain an estate in Chelsea by questionable means.
In 1702, Ranelagh was expelled from Parliament and forced to resign on
the grounds of misapplying public money, but no hard evidence of
misappropriation or embezzlement was put forward in the reports of the
relevant Commissioners.
The Concise DNB states that Ranelagh "was convicted of defalcation, but
escaped prosecution".
"Convicted" struck me as an odd term to use in this context: does
"being found guilty by one's colleagues", or "forced to resign because
of alleged but unprosecuted illegal actions" constitute being
"convicted"?