A
Andy Georges
Hello,
I am dealing with the following problem (it's actually a problem of a friend
of mine, so bear with me, I'm no access expert).
There are two database, say DB1 and DB2. In a macro defined in DB1 a
function is called, say f2, defined in DB2. f2 uses various macro's defined
in DB2, in order to update the DB2 tables. Afaik, in order to call f2, we
need a reference to DB2, thereby locking the DB2 tables, which evidently
interferes with updating the DB2 tables from within the macro defines in
DB1. This used to work perfectly in Access 98 (was this a bug?), but alas,
no avail in Access XP.
Has anybody got any idea on how to solve this problem?
regards,
Andy Georges
I am dealing with the following problem (it's actually a problem of a friend
of mine, so bear with me, I'm no access expert).
There are two database, say DB1 and DB2. In a macro defined in DB1 a
function is called, say f2, defined in DB2. f2 uses various macro's defined
in DB2, in order to update the DB2 tables. Afaik, in order to call f2, we
need a reference to DB2, thereby locking the DB2 tables, which evidently
interferes with updating the DB2 tables from within the macro defines in
DB1. This used to work perfectly in Access 98 (was this a bug?), but alas,
no avail in Access XP.
Has anybody got any idea on how to solve this problem?
regards,
Andy Georges