G
Guest
I'm developing a web application for our local intranet that will allow users
to pull up a webpage and update or deleted or insert records into a database
as well as run reports etc...
Our DB server is on a Win2k3 OS using SQL Server 2000
Our Web server is on a separate Win2kr OS using IIS 6
Both the servers and the clients are part of the same domain.
We've turned anonymous access off on the web and are passing the integrated
authentication from the client's machine (through their domain login). The
user has been granted all the correct permission to the database server and
the database that will be updated. However it seems like the authentication
is being passed to the web server and then the web server is passing a
different set of authentication on to the database server? The
authentication it is passing on to the database server is DOMAIN\MACHINENAME$.
If we add that machine name to the SQL Server as having permission to do the
update/delete/select we can get the app to work just fine. However, what we
want to do is to pass the clients authentication on to the database server...
not the web server’s authentication.
Any help I could get would be much appreciated..... this is driving me nuts
and seems like a pretty common practice (having the db and the web on two
separate machines).
Thanks in advance.
Josh
to pull up a webpage and update or deleted or insert records into a database
as well as run reports etc...
Our DB server is on a Win2k3 OS using SQL Server 2000
Our Web server is on a separate Win2kr OS using IIS 6
Both the servers and the clients are part of the same domain.
We've turned anonymous access off on the web and are passing the integrated
authentication from the client's machine (through their domain login). The
user has been granted all the correct permission to the database server and
the database that will be updated. However it seems like the authentication
is being passed to the web server and then the web server is passing a
different set of authentication on to the database server? The
authentication it is passing on to the database server is DOMAIN\MACHINENAME$.
If we add that machine name to the SQL Server as having permission to do the
update/delete/select we can get the app to work just fine. However, what we
want to do is to pass the clients authentication on to the database server...
not the web server’s authentication.
Any help I could get would be much appreciated..... this is driving me nuts
and seems like a pretty common practice (having the db and the web on two
separate machines).
Thanks in advance.
Josh